Tuesday, December 29, 2015
How does the repossession system work in UK on mortgage defaults?
Hi,
A United Kingdom question here.
Say a person lives in House A which is worth roughly ã500k and has a residential mortgage outstanding of ã200k.
Say that person is landlord of House B which is on rent to third party tenants. House B is worth ã400k and has a buy to let mortgage of ã320k.
If the house market crashes by 40 percent, then House A is now worth ã300k (with a ã200k mortgage), and house B is worth ã280k (with a ã320k mortgage).
If the person starts to default on the mortgage payments on House B (but still meets all payments on House A), I presume the lender for B will want to repossess B and try to get their ã320k back.
What would be the process?
Am I right in thinking that the mortgage was secured on House B and so the lender can repossess and sell it on and keep the proceeds. However the sale may only realise ã280k which is ã40k short. Will the person still be liable for the ã40k and would his residential home (house A) be at risk of repossession if he cannot pay this ã40k?
Cheers
Read more: How does the repossession system work in UK on mortgage defaults?