My mum bought a house following my dad's death, paid in cash so no mortgage on it. The title deeds are in my name alone as she wanted the house to be for my siblings and I.
I've been living in the house and paying rent on an informal basis, no tenancy agreement for the past two years.
Relationships have now soured, and she has re-married. Legally where do I stand, could I sell the house without her consent and/or stop paying rent?
Added (1). Just to clarify I'm UK based
Read more: Informally paying rent but title deeds in my name?
