What would the judge rule in this case?

Long story short…

My uncle and aunt helped my dad to buy a house, My dad put a portion in, then his sister and brother in-law put in their share, as well as a mortgage.

After helping my family get this house, they had my dad and I help remodel. They said that however much it costs would be added to the mortgage.

The original verbal agreement was that when my dad pays the house off in 10 years, it will be his So after my dad and I both helped my uncle remodel, he then said that my dad can't afford the house, and now wants to sell it.

All the work that my dad and I did was for nothing. They won't give us the house. Didn't even give us a chance.

My dad went to an attorney and told him the situation. A letter was mailed my my uncle saying that if the original agreement does not happen, they will be going taken to court.

My dad and I both work for a temp service. Usually the work is steady, sometimes it's not. My mom and grandma would be moving in too. They both get steady income.

My dad has $20,000 dollars into this house for nothing. My uncle said won't be able to refund the money until the house sells.

What would the judge rule in this situation? There is nothing in writing saying my dad would get the property. Only was a verbal agreement.
Added (1). The deed is in my uncle's name.

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