my father in-law convinced his uncle to buy a house that would later put in my father-in-laws name, he sent the money for the house after closing. After that my father-in-laws nephew went to work on the house claiming hes put 18,000 into the property and begun renting it out when he could not receive the money from his father who was receiving all the money from my father-in-law. Me and my wife moved in 2 years later, and we've begun worrying the uncle that took the mortgage will not pay it and after 35,000, which doesnt include the intial 12,000 being put into the house it would be difficult under-take more bills when the house alone isn't readibly livable. The question i am posing is would it be possible to convince the uncle to sign a contract stating he received this money and use it in the court of law. I have also considered recordings but they rarely speak english and i don't think we can afford too many extra court costs.
Read more: Paid for home renovations that didnt get done, no receipts, no licenses, and a mortgage on the house now?
