When the person whose name the property is not held in has contributed financially to the property mortgage payments. The property is owned in one person's name, it is still possible for the other partner to prove they are entitled to a share if they split up?
I have been living with my boyfriend for 8 years. And now we having a baby. He inherited some money from his family and use it as deposit for the house. And now we both living in his house. Every month he asked me for money towards the mortgage and bills. Which is fine I'm on maternity leave. And now my maternity leave coming to an end. He asked me to stay home and look after the baby and only work 1 day a week and only give him half of what I normally pay towards the bill but not the mortgage. He did mention and for that reason I have no contribution towards the mortgage. So I said " fine am going back to work then! We both just take inturn looking after the baby. " He said " No. " So, what is my options for both of us that call fair? Please advice.
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